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” the man who doesnt read good books has no advantage over the one who cant read them ” – explain in 2 paras.

the quote was made by mark twain. pls help me to explain it . write back ur answers as early as u can .

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samantha

Favorite Answer

What the quote means is that neither person, the one who can’t read, and the one who “won’t read good books” benefits at all.

They are both in the same spot.

In two paragraphs?

Why do we learn to read? Because it is necessary to learn and to grow in knowledge. The person who is too “lazy” to apply himself and learn to read, or even the one who may have a problem in learning…but could find help….will stay ignorant all his life.

There are very few excuses for not applying oneself and learning. Abraham Lincoln learned to read at home in a log cabin with only the Bible as his “learning book”. It is also just as inexcusable to have good books available and be too “lazy”, or too “busy” to learn from good books. It is the only way to gain in knowledge…in school, or at home.

Mark Twain had a way of saying things that was truly memorable. He was a great writer, and saw life clearly.

1

Anonymous
The person who has the ability to read and chooses to not use their ability is no better off than the person who is illiterate. It is like computers or bodybuilding… junk in … junk out!
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southerngirl
Because the person who can read and chooses not to is foolish while the person who cant didnt get to make that choice.
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Anonymous
do ur own hwk pls. and while u r at it lrn 2 wrt them in rl English with proper grammar.
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Mark
Do your own homework assignments (else you’ll end up like the first category)
2

Anonymous
The man that does not read is squandering his abilities.

The man that cannot read is not necessarily unwise.

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